Civil Judge Class II Exam - MP2006
Q. No. 1
For Criminal conspiracy the minimum number of persons required is :-
(a) Seven
(b) Five
(c) Two
(d) Three
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 2
Assault cannot be caused by:-
(a) Mere words
(b) Gestures
(c) Preparation
(d) Any one of these
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 3
Robbery is dacoity if committed conjointly by :-
(a) More than two persons but less than five persons
(b) More than Five persons or more
(c) At least seven persons
(d) At least ten persons
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 4
For an unlawful assembly, the minimum number of persons required is :-
(a) Ten
(b) Seven
(c) Five
(d) Three
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 5
X knows that Y is suffering from a disease in his head and also knows that if a blow is given to V on his head it is likely to cause his death. X gives a fist blow to Y on his head. Y died. X is :-
(a) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) Guilty of murder
(c) Guilty of causing hurt
(d) Guilty of no offence
as in ordinary circumstances that
blow is not sufficient to cause death of
aperson of normal health.
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 6
Y inserts his hand into the pocket of Z but the pocket was empty. Y is guilty of :-
(a) No offence as the offence was not completed
(b) Theft
(c) Mischief
(d) Attempt to theft
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 7
The young ladies X and Y fight with each other. X know-ing herself to be likely permanently disfigure Y's face, she inflicts injury with a blade on the face of Y, leaving permanent ugly scar on the cheek of Y. Here X is guilty ofcausing:-
(a) Simple hurt
(b) Grievous hurt by dangerous means
(c) Attempt to commit murder
(d) Grievous hurt by rash and negligent act
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 8
When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follow, the of-
fence is :-
(a) Attempt to murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Murder
(d) Grievous hurt
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 9
In a cognizable case the police will have powers to :-
(a) Investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
(b) Investigate and power to arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
(c) Investigate including the power to arrest without warrant
(d) Investigate and arrest without warrant, only after informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 10
Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence can be granted by a :-
(a) Magistrate in any part of India
(b) Magistrate in any part of State
(c) Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
(d) Session Judge
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 11
Warrant case has been defined as a case relating to an offence punishable with death imprisonment for life or improsoment for a term :-
(a) Exceeding one year
(b) Exceeding two years
(c) Exceeding three years
(d) Exceeding seven years
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 12
Offences of Indian Penal code other than mentioned in section 320 of criminal procedure code are :-
(a) Not compoundable
(b) Compoundable with the permission of court
(c) Compoundable by the ; Court of Sessions
(d) Compoundable by the High Court
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 13
Section 164 Criminal Procedure Code provides a special procedure for recording of:-
(a) Confessions
(b) Statements made during the course of investigation
(c) Confessions as well as statements made during the course of investigation
(d) Examination of witnesses by police
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 14
When invstigation cannot be completed within 24 hours the largest period for which an accused can be remanded to police custody is :-
(a) Ten days
(b) Fifteen days
(c) Thirteen days
(d) Thirty days
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 15
If a magistrate administers oath recording the confession of an accused the confessional statement is :-
(a) Good in law and admissible in evidence
(b) Bad in law and inadmissible in evidence
(c) Good in law but admissible only on corroboration
(d) Bad in law but become admissible on corroboration by other evidence
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 16
When investgation is not completed within the prescribed period of 90 days or 60 days as the case may be and accused is in custody on expiry of the said period if he is prepared to and does furnished bail, the accused is entitled to be :-
(a) Discharged
(b) Acquitted
(c) Released on bail by the investigating officer
(d) Released on bail by the concerning Magistrate
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 17
Under the provisions of Section 125(4) Criminal Procedure code, who of the following cannot claim maintenance from her husband:-
(a) Wife herself earning money
(b) Wife living separately by mutual consent
(c) Woman, who has been divorced by her husband and has not remarried
(d) Woman, who has obtained divorce from her husband and has not remarried
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 18
Jurisdiction to grant bail under section 438 of criminal procedure code vests with:-
(a) Only High Court
(b) Only Sessions Court
(c) Only Magistrate
(d) Either High Court or Court ofSessions
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 19
Compounding of offence under the provisions of criminal procedure code results in that criminal case :-
(a) Acquittal of accused
(b) Discharge of accused
(c) Acquittal only if the chaerges have been framed
(d) Discharge only if the charges have been framed
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 20
Period of limitation to take cognizance of an offence punishable for a term more than three years imprisonment is:-
(a) 90 days
(b) One years
(c) Three years
(d) No period of limitation is prescribed
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 21
A disputed handwriting can be proved :-
(a) By calling an expert
(b) By examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document
(c) Comparison of the two, admitted and disputed documents
(d) All of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 22
In relation to a court question the adverse party :-
(a) Has a right to cross examination as a matter of right
(b) Can cross-examine only with the permission of court
(c) Has no right to cross examine
(d) Can make any objection as a matter of right
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 23
Evidence means and include:-
(a) Ocular evidence only
(b) Documentary evidence only
(c) Ocular and documentary evidence both
(d) Ocular evidence based on documents only
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 24
The documents are :-
(a) Caricature
(b) Words printed lithographed or photographed
(c) A map and an inscription on a stone
(d) All of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 25
Contents of documents may beproved:-
(a) By secondary evidence
(b) By Primary evidence
(c) A and B both are correct
(d) Above all options are incorrect
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 26
Under sub-section (5)(C) of section 65(6) in Indian EvidenceAct, a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer:-
(a) Whether it was produced by it directly
(b) Whether it was produced by means of any appropriate equipment
(c) Whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment
(d) Whether it was produced by it directly or any appropriate equipment
In these four statements which is complete one ?
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 27
Admissions :-
(a) Must be in writing
(b) Must be oral
(c) Can be either oral or in writing
(d) Must be oral and in writing both
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 28
Facts which need not be proved by the parties, include:-
(a) Facts which have been admitted by the parties at or before the hearing
(b) Statements made on oath
(c) Any registered document
(d) Statements made in plaint or in written statement supported by affidavit
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 29
Under Indian Evidence Act, a document required by law to be attested can be proved by calling :-
(a) Both the attesting witnesses
(b) At least one of the attesting witness
(c) Any other person
(d) A legal heir of the attesting witness
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 30
Due execution of a document more than thirty years old, coming from proper custody is a :-
(a) Presumption of facts
(b) Rebuttable presumption of law
(c) Irrebuttable presumption oflaw
(d) Presumption of facts and law both
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 31
In criminal proceedings the burden of proof lies :-
(a) On prosecution to prove the guilt of accused beyond reasonable doubt
(b) On accused to prove his innocence
(c) On both the parties
(d) Depends on the facts of each one
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 32
Leading questions can be asked during:-
(a) Examination - in - chief
(b) Cross-examination
(c) Re-examination
(d) cannot be asked in any circumstances
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 33
M.P.Accommodation Control Act, 1961 shall apply to such accomm odation: -
(a) Which is the property of Government
(b) Which is the property of authority
(c) Which is owned by any educational institution exempted by the Government vide some notification
(d) Which has not been used, without reasonable cause, for which it was let, for a continuous period of six months
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 34
After a notice of demand for arrears of rent has been served on tenant, he should pay or tender the arrears of rent to save himself from eviction:-
(a) Within fifteen days
(b) Within one month
(c) Within two months
(d) Within three months
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 35
Tenant may be evicted on the ground of bonafide need of landlord for residential purpose but the need does not extend to :-
(a) His son's need
(b) Need of the other family members
(c) Need of any person for whose benefit accommodation is held
(d) Need of any other tenant paying more rent
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 36
For a construction which has materially altered the accommodation to the detriment of the landlord's interest or is likely to diminish its value
substantially by the tenant:-
(a) Oral permission from landlord is sufficient
(b) Written permission of landlord is necessary
(c) Permission has to be taken from the Rent Controlling Authority
(d) No such permission is required
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 37
In a case of eviction on the ground of bona fide need for residential or non-residential accommodation the landlord cannot obtain possession of the accommodation before:-
(a) One month
(b) Two month
(c) Three months
(d) Six months
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 38
Cognizance of offences, punishable under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 can be taken by :-
(a) Judicial Magistrate second class
(b) Judicial Magistrate first class
(c) Only Sessions Court
(d) Only High Court
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 39
Which of the following is incorrect statement :-
(a) Tenant can sublet the whole or any part of the accommodation held by him as a tenant with the previous consent in writing oflandlord
(b) Tenant can transfer or assign his rights in the tenancy or in any part thereof with the previous consent in writing oflandlord
(c) For subletting the previous consent oflandlord has to be taken in writing. It is a mandatory provision
(d) A landlord shall claim or receive the payment of any sum as premium or'pugree' for giving his consent to the subletting of the accommodation held by the tenant
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 40
Standard rent may be fixed by:-
(a) The court
(b) Landlord and tenant
(c) Rent Control Authority
(d) Collector
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 41
Where a landlord recovers possession of any accommodations from the tenant in pursuance of an order made under clause (e) or clause (f) of sub-section (1) of section 12 of M.P.Accommodation Control Act, 1961 the landlord shall not, exceptwith the permission of the Rent Controlling Authority obtained in the prescribed manner, re-let the accommodation within:-
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 42
If the accommodation was let to a tenant for use as a residence by reason of his being in service or employment of the landlord and that tenant has ceased to be in such service or employment then which of the following is perfect:-
(a) Ground for eviction is available in all respect
(b) This is not a ground for eviction
(c) Ground for eviction shall not be available if any dispute as to whether the tenant has ceased to be in service or employment of the landlord is pending before any competent authority
(d) No ground for eviction is available if the tenant keeps paying the rent on or before due date
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 43
Which of the following is not a legal ground of eviction:-
(a) Tenant has built up, acquired vacant possession of or has been allotted an accommodation suitable for his residence
(b) Tenant has caused or permitted to be caused substantial damages to the accommodation
(c) Landlord desires to increase the rent being paid by tenant and tenant refuses for such increase
(d) Tenant has been convicted under any law of an offence of using the building or allowing the building to be used for immoral or illegal purposes
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 44
Against an order passed by Rent Controlling Authority under any section of Chapter 3A of M.P.Accommodation Control Act, 1961.
(a) Only appeal shall lie
(b) Appeal shall not lie
(c) Only revision shall lie
(d) Both appeal and revision shall lie
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 45
On transfer for his benefit an unborn person acquires vested interest :-
(a) Upon his birth
(b) After one week of his birth
(c) After twelve days of his birth
(d) There is no such provision in law
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 46
Where immovable property is transferred for consideration by persons having distrinct interest therein, but their interests in the property are of equal value, the transferor are :-
(a) Entitled to get equal share in the consideration
(b) Entitled to get unequal share in the consideration
(c) Entitled to get equal share subject to further transfers in future
(d) None of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 47
Rule of lis pendents is applicable to suits for specific performance of contracts to transfer the immovable property. This statements is :-
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Partly true
(d) Depends on the facts of each case
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 48
In case of transfer of property the seller is :-
(a) not entitled to rents and profits
(b) entitled to rents and profits of the property till the ownership there of passed to buyer.
(c) Entitled to rents and profits forever
(d) None of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 49
In case of usufructuary mortgage the mortgagee is placed in possession and has a right to receive the rents and other Profits:-
(a) Till the mortgage money is paid
(b) Till the contract is rescinded
(c) For a fixed period of thirty years
(d) For a fixed period of ninety nine years
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 50
A right to obtain a decree from the court that the mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called :-
(a) A right for foreclosure
(b) A right for claim
(c) A right for redemption
(d) A right for sale
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 51
Lease of immovable property determines :-
(a) By efflux of time, limited thereby
(b) By implied surrender
(c) By the happening of such event, where the interest of the lessor in the property, terminates on the happening of that event
(d) When the lessee becomes insolvent
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 52
In case of a gift if the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is :-
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Revocable
(d) Irrevocable
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 53
Transfer of property Act has no relation with:-
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Light
(d) All of these
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 54
Fraudulent transfer is :-
(a) Void
(b) illegal
(c) Immoral
(d) Voidable
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 55
Sale is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price:-
(a) paid
(b) promised
(c) part paid and part promised
(d) all of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 56
X transfers Rs. 5000 to Y on condition that he shall marry with the consent of A,B and C,Y married without the consent of A,B and C but obtains their consent after the marriage. Y has :-
(a) Fulfilled the condition
(b) Not fulfilled the condition
(c) Substantially complied with
(d) None of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 57
A contract with or by a minor is a :-
(a) Valid contract
(b) Void contract
(c) Voidable contract
(d) Voidable contract at the option of either party
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 58
Which of the following is correct :-
(a) Past Consideration is no Consideration
(b) Consideration can be past, present of future
(c) Consideration can only be present
(d) Consideration can only be future
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 59
A contingent contract :-
(a) is valid contract
(b) is voidable contract
(c) is a contract void-ab-initio
(d) is a contract becomes void when the event becomes impossible
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 60
Tender is :-
(a) An offer
(b) An invitation to offer
(c) A counter offer
(d) A promise
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 61
Reasonable time for performance of a contract is a question :-
(a) offact
(b) oflaw
(c) mixed question offact and law
(d) ofprudence
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 62
A contract is not frustrated:-
(a) By commercial impossibility
(b) By imposition of government restriction or order
(c) By destruction of subject matter of contract
(d) By death or incapability of party when contract is of the personal services
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 63
X promises to make a sculpture for Y:-
(a) X's son can perform the promise
(b) X has to perform the promise personally
(c) X's servant can perform the promise
(d) X's agent who is an artist also, can perform the promise
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 64
X enters into a contract with Y for which Y is guilty of fraud.Xcan:-
(a) Set aside the contract but cannot recover damages
(b) Only recover damages
(c) Set aside the contract and can recover damages also
(d) None of the above
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 65
When a contract has been broken the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive damages from the party who has broken the contract:-
(a) Liquidated damages
(b) Compensatory damages
(c) Penal damages
(d) None of these
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 66
An agent can be appointed by:-
(a) A minor of sound mind
(b) A major of sound mind
(c) Any person of sound mind
(d) Any major of sound or unsound mind
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 67
In a pledge ownership of property or goods:-
(a) continued in pledger
(b) transferred to the pledgee
(c) cannot be transferred to pledgee under any cicumstances
(d) Cannot continue with pledger under any cicumstances
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 68
Novation of a contract means:-
(a) Renewal of original contract
(b) Substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
(c) Alternation of contract
(d) Recision of Contract
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 69
If the holder of service land dies, resigns or is lawfully dismissed the land shall pass:-
(a) By survivorship
(b) To his successor-in-office
(c) By Agreement
(d) Bypatta
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 70
Which of the following do not fall under the meaning of "Revenue officer":-
(a) Collector
(b) Commissioner
(c) Superintendent of land-records
(d) President Board of Revenue
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 71
Agriculture year means the year commencing on:-
(a) 1 si day of January
(b) 1st day of April
(c) 1st day of July
(d) 1st day of October
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 72
Under section 44 of M.P.Land Revenue code an appeal from the original order of commissioner lies to:-
(a) District Judge
(b) Settlement Commissioner
(c) High court
(d) Board of Revenue
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 73
Under section 50 of M.P.Land Revenue Code no application for revision shall be enterined by Commissioner or Settlement Commissioner or Collector or Settlement Officer as the case may be unless presented within:-
(a) Thirty days
(b) Fort>' five days
(c) Sixtydays
(d) Seventy five days from the date of order
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 74
From an order passed in review varying or reversing any order in M.P.Land Revenue Code:-
(a) Only a writ petition lies befor High Court
(b) review order is final
(c) only revision lies
(d) appeal lies as in case of original order
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 75
On his death, interest of lihumiswami shall not pass by:-
(a) Inheritance
(b) Survivorship
(c) Bequest
(d) Any agreement
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 76
All revenue officers in a division shall be subordinate to:-
(a) Commissioner
(b) Collector
(c) District Judge
(d) Board of Revenue
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 77
Where a dispute arises between the State Government and any person in respect of any right under section 57(1) of M.P.Land Revenue Code, providing for state ownership
in all lands such dispute shall be decided by the :-
(a) Revenue Board
(b) Patwari
(c) Sub-Divisional Officer
(d) NaibTehsildar
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 78
Clerical errors which have been made in the record of rights may at any time be corrected or cause to corrected by the :-
(a) Revenue Inspecter
(b) Patwari
(c) Tehsildar
(d) Sub-Divisional Officer
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 79
Any person aggrieved by any entry made in Wazib-ul-arj may institute a suit in Civil Court to have such entry cancelled or modified within:-
(a) 90 days
(b) One year
(c) Two year
(d) Three years from the date of publication of such records
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 80
The following shall be deemed to be a lease of the land:-
(a) Grant of right merely to cut grass
(b) To graze cattle
(c) Any arragement where by a person cultivate any land of a Bhumiswami on condition of his giving a specified share of the produce of the land to the Bhumiswami
(d) To grow Singhara
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 81
A decree may be executed:-
(a) By the court which passed the decree
(b) By any other court to which a decree has been sent for execution
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both Statements are incorrect
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 82
Any objections to interrogatories may be taken on the ground that it is :-
(a) Irrelevant
(b) Scandalous
(c) Not exhibited bonafide
(d) Al 1 or any of these
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 83
A decree can be :-
(a) Preliminary
(b) Final
(c) First preliminary then final
(d) Either preliminary or final
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 84
Mohan residing in Mumbai beats Sohan in Delhi, Sohan maysueMohan:-
(a) Only in Mumbai
(b) Only in Delhi
(c) Either in Mumbai or in Delhi
(d) None of these
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 85
Principle of res judicata applies :-
(a) To suits only
(b) To execution proceedings only
(c) To arbitration proceedings only
(d) To suits as well as execution proceedings
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 86
In case of failure of filing the written statement within thirty days, the defendant can be allowed to file the same on such other day specified by the court for reasons recorded in writing which shall not be later than:-
(a) 45 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days of summons
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 87
The plaint shall be rejected by the court under section order 7 rule ll(e) of Civil Procedure Code, if it is not filed in:-
(a) duplicate
(b) triplicate
(c) quadruplicate
(d) live copies
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 88
Pleading means:-
(a) Plaint only
(b) Written statement only
(c) Plaint and written statement
(d) Plaint written slatement and replication
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 89
An ex parte decree can be set aside on the ground that:-
(a) Summons were not duly served
(b) Non-appearance of defendant as copies of documents filed with plaint were not provided to defendant
(c) defendant refused to receive the summons and therafter no fresh summons were issued to him
(d) an ex parte decree cannot be set aside under any cicumstance
Select this line to see correct answer : d
Q. No. 90
Documents which are meant for cross examination of a witness of the other party or meant for refreshing the memory of the witness may beproduced:-
(a) at or before the settlement ofissues
(b) after the settlement of issues
(c) at any time when they are required
(d) along with pleadings
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 91
Pleadings can beamended:-
(a) before the trial court only
(b) before the first appellate court only
(c) before either me trial court or first appellate court or second appellate court
(d) before second appellate court only
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 92
Period of detention in civil imprisonment, as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction shall not cxceed:-
(a) One month
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 93
A Judgement passed by a court can be reviewed by:-
(a) the court passing the judgement
(b) the court of District judge
(c) the High Court
(d) the Supreme Court
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 94
Caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of:-
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 95
X finds one thousand rupee's note on the public road He does not know to whom the note belongs X pick up the note. Here X has :-
(a) Not committed any offence
(b) Committed dishonest misappropriation of property
(c) Committed robbery
(d) Committed theft
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 96
Age of minor for kidnapping should be :-
(a) under 16 years
(b) under 18 years
(c) under 16 years of age if a male and under 18 years of age if a female
(d) under 21 years of age if a male and under 18 years of age if a female
Select this line to see correct answer : c
Q. No. 97
X and Y both go to murder Z, X stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at all. Y killed Z.
(a) only Y is liable for rnurder ofZ
(b) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z
(c) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
(d) A and C both are correct
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 98
If the offence be punishable
with fine only, imprisonment
for non-payment of fine:-
(a) has to be simple
(b) has to be rigorous
(c) can be rigorous or simple
(d) no imprisonment
Select this line to see correct answer : a
Q. No. 99
X is at work with hatchet the head of hatchet flies off and kills a man Y who was stand by here, if there is no want of proper caution on the part of X his act is :-
(a) not excusable and an offence
(b) excusable and not an offence
(c) an offence but benefit of probation is necessary
(d) an offence or not is depend on the sweet will of the legal representative of deceased
Select this line to see correct answer : b
Q. No. 100
The right of private defence to the body:-
(a) Commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues as long as such apprehension of the danger to the body continues
(b) Commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues even after that apprehension ceases
(c) Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues during the period ofassault
(d) Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues even after the assailant has left
Select this line to see correct answer : a